Sunday 10 November 2019

MCQ on RTI Act


1) The first State to introduce the a law on Right to information was 
a) Tamil Nadu
b) UP
c) Maharashtra
d) Gujarat
Ans:A

2) The time limit specified in the RTI Act, 2005 for the Central / State Information Commissions to 
decide on complaints is 
a) 15 days 
b) One month 
c) Two months 
d) No such time limit has been specifie
Ans:D

3) The First Appellate Authority under RTI Act should decide on first appeals 
a) Within 30 days from the receipt of the first appeals.
b) In less number of days than the PIO concerned took to take a decision on the application
c) In exceptional cases within 45 days from the date of receipt of the appeal, if the reasons are  recorded. 
d) (a)and (c) above

Ans:D

4) Central of State Public Information Officer may allow access to information exempted under 
Section 8 (1) of the RTI Act 2005 if public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the  protected interests. 
a) The statement is correct.
b) The statement is correct but it can be done only after approval of Appellate Authority.
c) The statement is correct but it can be done only after the approval of CIC
d) None of these
Ans:A

5) What does Right to Information mean? 
a) Inspect works, documents, records.
b) Take notes , extract or certified copies of documents or records.
c) Take certified samples of material.
d) All the above
Ans:D

6) What is the maximum amount if penalty under RTI Act 2005 that can be imposed on CPIO? 
a) Rs. 300/-
b) Rs. 25,000/-
c) Rs. 75,000/-
d) Rs. 1,00,000/
Ans:B

7) With reference to the RTI Act, which of the following statement/s is/ are true? 
a) A third party is a person other than the citizen making a request 
b) Third party includes a public authority also.
c) Both (a) & (b) are true.
d) Neither (a) nor (b) is true.
Ans:C

8) The basic object of the Right to Information Act 2005 is: 
a) To empower the citizens,
b) Promote transparency and accountability in the working of the Government
c) Contain corruption,
d) All the above
Ans:D

9) Which of the following is not correct? 
a) The CPIO cannot seek the assistance of any other officer for proper discharge of his or her 
duties
b) The CPIO may seek the assistance of any other officer for proper discharge of his or her duties
c) Every CPIO shall deal with requests from persons seeking such information and render  reasonable assistance to the persons seeking such information
d) CPIO should provide information if not exempted within 30 days
Ans:A

10) Under RTI Act 2005, the information is provided to the applicant free of cost? 
i. If the applicant is a BPL person 
ii. Where a public authority fails to provide information within 30 days of receipt of  application 
iii. Where a public authority fails to provide information within 45 days of receipt of  application 
a) (i)only
b) (ii)only 
c) (iii)only 
d) Both (i) and (ii)
Ans:D

11) Under RTI Act 2005 which of the following statements is correct? 
i. lnformation, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament can be denied 
ii. lnformation, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of State  Legislature can be denied 
iii. lnformation, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament  cannot be denied 
iv. lnformation, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of State  Legislature cannot be denied 
a) (i)and (ii) only 
b) (ii)and (iii) only
c) (iii)and (iv) only
d) (iv)and (i) only
Ans:A

12) As per section 12 (2) of RTI Act 2005, the Central Information Commission shall consist of: 
a) The Chief information Commissioner and such number of Central Information Commissioners 
not exceeding ten as may be deemed necessary.
b) The Chief information Commissioner and such number of Central Information Commissioners 
not exceeding five as may be deemed necessary.
c) The Chief information Commissioner and such number of Central Information Commissioners 
not exceeding two as may be deemed necessary.
d) The Chief information Commissioner and such number of Central Information Commissioners 
not exceeding three as may be deemed necessary.
Ans:a

13) Who can place an Information Commissioner under suspension? 
i. The President of India 
ii. The Prime Minister of India 
iii. The Chief Justice of India 
a) (i)only
b) (i)and (ii) only 
c) (i)and (iii) only 
d) All the above
Ans:A

14) Choose the correct option as per section 13 (5) of RTI Act 2005? 
a) The salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of service of Chief  Information Commissioner is the same as that of the Chief Election Commissioner.
b) The salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of service of Chief  Information Commissioner is the same as that of the Chief Justice of High Court.
c) The salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of service of Chief  Information Commissioner is the same as that of the Justice of High Court.
d) The salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of service of Chief  Information Commissioner is the same as that of the Justice of Supreme Court
Ans:A

15) It shall be of the duty of the Central Information Commission to receive and enquire into a  complaint from any person 
i. Who has not been given a response to a request for information or access to  information within the time limit specified under RTI Act 2005. 
ii. Who has been required to pay an amount of fee which he or she consider unreasonable; 
iii. Issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents. 
a) (i)only
b) (ii)only
c) (iii)only 
d) All of above
Ans:D

16) The Central Information Commission while inquiring into any matter under section 18 of RTI  Act; 
i. Cannot compel a person to give written evidence on oath like a Civil Court does. 
ii. Can compel a person to give written evidence on oath like a Civil Court does. 
iii. Can enforce that attendance of a person like a Civil Court does 
Options :
a) (ii)and (iii) only 
b) (iii)and (i) only 
c) (i)and (ii) only 
d) (i)only
Ans:A

17) The Central Information Commission while inquiring into any matter under section 18 of RTI 
Act; 
i. Cannot requisition any public record or copies thereof from any court or office, 
ii. Can requisition any public record or copies thereof from any court or office, 
iii. Cannot receive evidence on affidavit like a Civil Court does. 
a) (i)only
b) (iii)only
c) (ii)only
d) (i)and (iii) only
Ans:C

18) Who can file an appeal against the decision of the CPIO under RTI Act? 
i. The information seeker 
ii. The Third party aggrieved by the order of the CPIO 
iii. Any citizen 
Options : 
a) (i)only 
b) (i)and (ii) only 
c) (iii)only 
d) (ii)and (iii) only
Ans:B

19) Which one of the following statements is true? 
i. In any appellate proceedings the onus lies on CPIO to prove that he acted diligently 
ii. ln any appellate proceedings the onus lies on information seeker to prove that the CPIO 
did not act diligently. 
iii. The Information Commission does not have powers to recommend disciplinary action  against CPIO. 
Options : 
a) (i)only
b) (ii)only
c) (ii)and (iii) only 
d) (i)and (ii) only
Ans:A

20) Which of the following statements is true? 
i. Which information sought for is in respect of allegations of violation of human rights by  security agencies, it shall only be provided after the approval of Central Government. 
ii. Information is respect of allegations of violation of human rights by security agencies is  fully exempt from disclosure under RTI Act. 
iii. When information sought for is in respect of allegations of violation of human rights by  security agencies, it shall only be provided after the approval of Central Information 
Commission. 
Options : 
a) (i)only 
b) (ii)only
c) (iii)only
d) (i)and (iii) only
Ans: C

21) Which of the following organizations is included in Schedule Two of the RTI Act? 
a) Border Security Force
b) “Central Reserve Police Force. 
c) National Security Guards.
d) All the three above.
Ans:D

22) The Provision relating to 'suo motu' disclosure is contained in 
a) Section 4 of RTI Act
b) Section 11 of RTI Act
c) Section 22 of RTI Act
d) Section 24 of RTI Act
Ans:A

Saturday 9 November 2019

MCQ on Schedule of Financial powers

The Divisional supdt may sanction up to Rs ____ in each case for purchase of equipments and consumables connected with computer and other equipments.

a) 400/- b) 15,000/-
c) 5000/- d) 2500/-

Ans: Rs.15,000/-

The Divisional supdt may sanction Divisional office Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and fitting for office.

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/-
And: B

The Divisional supdt may sanction Sub Divisional office Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and fitting for office.

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 15000/-
Ans:D. 

The Divisional supdt may sanction Gazetted Head office with Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and fitting

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/-
Ans:D. 

The Divisional supdt may sanction HSG/LSG  office with Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and fitting

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/-
Ans:C
  
The Divisional supdt may sanction Head office with Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and fitting
a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/-
Ans:C

The Divisional supdt may sanction LSG SO Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and fitting for office.

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/-
Ans: B

The Divisional supdt may sanction EDSO/EDBO Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and f itting for office.

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 75000/-
Ans: C

The Divisional supdt may sanction up to Rs_____ in each case for hiring examination and for other purpose etc holding customers meet etc

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 75000/-
Ans: C

The Divisional supdt may sanction up to Rs____ per month in each case for mail conveyance

a) 2500/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 10000/-
Ans: D

Friday 1 November 2019

MCQ for IPO Paper 3

1. Constitution of India is a comprehensive document containing …… Articles and …….. Schedules.
(a) 365, 22 (b) 385, 12
(c) 395, 12 (d) 375,22
Ans: c

2. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee
of the Constituent Committee which framed the Constitution of India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: b

3. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly ?
(a) 26th November, 1949
(b) 26th January, 1950
(c) 15th August, 1947
(d) 1st January, 1950
Ans: a

4. A person will be eligible to be elected as President of India only if he
(a) is a citizen of India
(b) has completed 35 years
(c) has qualified for election as a member of the house of the people
(d) all the above
Ans: d

5. The Supreme Court of India shall consist of a Chief Justice and ….... otherJudges.
(a) three (b) seven (c) fifteen (d) thirty
Ans: d

6. What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha ?
(a) 520 (b) 540 (c) 552 (d) 500
Ans: c

7. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive has been provided in which
of the following parts of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of
(d) The Seventh Schedule
Ans: c

8: which article of the Constitution of India has the Joint Sitting of the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha been provided ?
(a) Article 101 (b) Article 108
(c) Article 133 (d) Article 102
Ans: b

9. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Upper House within—
(a) 10 days (b) 14 days
(c) 20 days (d) 30 days
Ans: b

10: Who among the following is / are not appointed by the President of India ?
(a) Governors of the States
(b) Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts
(c) Vice-President
(d) Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court
Ans: c

11. If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha intends to vacate his office before the
expiry of his term, he sends his resignation to the—
(a) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) Leader of the House (Lok Sabha)
(c) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) President of India
Ans: c

12. The Governor of a State is appointed by—
(a) The State Legislature
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President
(d) The Parliament
Ans: c

13. When can the President declare emergency?
(a) When there is a breakdown of the constitutional machinery
(b) When security of India is threatened
(c) When financial stability is endangered
(d) Any or all of the above
Ans: d

14 . Which of the following amendments relates to the Local Government Institutions?
(a) 52nd Amendment
(b) 73rd Amendment
(c) 66th Amendment
(d) 70th Amendment
Ans: b

15 . Which was the lengthiest amendment to the Constitution of India?
(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 30th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) Union Cabinet
Ans: c

16. Who presides over the Rajya Sabha?
(a) President
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Vice-President
(d) None of them
Ans: c

17. Which one of the following parts of the Indian Constitution enjoins
upon the State “to provide free and compulsory education for children
up to 14 years of age”?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Special Provisions related to certain classes
Ans: b

18. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the subject
‘Languages’ ?
(a) First (b) Eighth (c) Ninth (d) Tenth
Ans: b

19: Which of the following State Governors enjoys special powers with regard to the administration of tribal areas?
(a) Orissa (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar (d) Assam
Ans: d

20. When can a bill be referred to the Parliamentary Committee?
(a) Just after being placed in the Parliament
(b) After general debate / discussion in the second reading
(c) After partial debate / discussion
(d) After difference between two houses
Ans: b

21. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is appointed by—
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Judge of Supreme Court
(d) None of the above
Ans: a

22. Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with—
(a) autonomy of States
(b) the proclamation of President’s Rule in a State
(c) the removal of a Chief Minister
(d) the appointment of a Governor
Ans: b

23. In which case did the Supreme Court concede the right of Parliament to amend the Constitution, but denied it the right to amend the basic structure of the Constitution?
(a) Keshavananda Bharati Case
(b) Golak Nath Case
(c) Minerva Mills Case
(d) None of these
Ans: a

24. What is the term of office of a Governor ?
(a) Three years (b) Five years
(c) Ten years (d) Seven years
Ans: b

25. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the Union Territories ?
(a) Part VIII (b) Part V (c) Part VII
(d) Part IX
Ans: a

26. Which article of the Constitution of India deals with disputes relating to
water of inter-state rivers?
(a) 267 (b) 262 (c) 272 (d) 261
Ans: b

27. Which part of the Constitution deals with the Administrative Tribunals?
(a) Part XIV-A (b) Part XXIV-A
(c) Part XIII-A (d) None of the abov
Ans: a

28. Reservation of seats and special representation of certain community will cease to have effect after ….. years from commencement of Constitution.
(a) 70 (b) 100 (c) 50 (d) None
Ans: a

29. The official language of the Union shall be—
(a) English (b) Hindi
(c) Devanagiri (d) Sanskrit
Ans: b

30. Name the article of the Constitution which gives the powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution—
(a) 328 (b) 338 (c) 368 (d) 358
Ans: c

31. According to Schedule I of the Constitution, there are ….states and …
Union Territories—
(a) 26, 5 (b) 28, 9 (c) 26, 10 (d) 28, 5
Ans:b

32. Which Schedule speaks about the oaths of affirmations ?
(a) Fourth (b) Third
(c) Second (d) Seventh
Ans: b

33. What is the total number of seats allotted to all the States and Union
Territories in the Council of States, according to Fourth Schedule?
(a) 233 (b) 253 (c) 263 (d) 273
Ans: a

34. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India specifies the Tribal areas?
(a) Seventh (b) Sixth (c) Fifth (d) Firs
Ans: c

35. Which language does not form a part of the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) French (b) Konkani
(c) Sindhi (d) Kashmiri
Ans: a

36. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India specifies the list of Acts and
Regulations as defined in Article 31-B?
(a) Sixth (b) Eighth (c) Fifth (d) Ninth
Ans: d

37. Which Constitutional amendment provides 30% seats in village panchayats reserved for women in India?
(a) 70 (b) 71 (c) 73 (d) 74
Ans: c

38. The Constitution of India was adopted by—
(a) British Parliament
(b) Parliament of India
(c) Governor-General
(d) Constituent Assembly
Ans:d

39: The Constitution of India names our country as—
(a) Bharat (b) Hindustan
(c) India, that is Bharat (d) Aryavarta
Ans: c

40. A Constitution is ........
(a) A set of official laws
(b) A set of financial laws
(c) A basic structure defining powers of state and duties and rights of the citizen
(d) A set of ordinary laws
Ans: c

41. When was Madras state renamed as Tamil Nadu?
(a) 1970 (b) 1971 (c) 1968 (d) 1969
Ans:d

42. The first state to become bifurcated after independence was—
(a) Bengal (b) Assam (c) Punjab
(d) Bombay
Ans: d

43. The sequence in which the given terms are mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India is—
(a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
(b) Socialist, Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
(c) Secular, Socialist, Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
(d) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular, Republic

Ans: a

44. Matters on which Panchayats have Powers, Authority and Responsibilities
are listed in—
(a) Seventh Schedule
(b) Eleventh Schedule
(c) Tenth Schedule
(d) First Schedule
Ans: b

45. The method of amendment of Indian Constitution has been incorporated in Article—
(a) 368 (b) 299 (c) 378 (d) 301
Ans: a

46. Which article of the Constitution describes the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) 366 (b) 266 (c) 176 (d) 186
Ans:b

47. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj?
(a) 243-O (b) 243-A (c) 243 (d) 243-I
Ans: C

48. Which article defines Money Bills?
(a) 101 (b) 110 (c) 111 (d) 112
Ans: B

49. In the Concurrent list, how many subjects have been included?
(a) 42 (b) 43 (c) 45 (d) 47
Ans:d

MCQ for IPO Paper-1

Q.1 Period within complaints should be prepared in case of VP, loss /damage of regd& ins article, other complaint related to inland post, miscarriage /destruction of postal order & SP is
a. 12 month, 3 month, 6 month, 12 month, 1 month
b. 24 month, 6 month, 9 month, 1 month, 2 month
c. 36 month, 1 month, 6 month, 9 month, 2 month
d. 6 month, 3 month3 month, 9 month, 1 month
Answer:a

Q.2 legal responsibility of post office is exempted from
a. Any fault by individual
b. Loss, mis delivery or delay of , or damage to, any postal article in course of transmission by post
c. wrong payment or delay in payment by foreign postal administration of money order issued in India
d. All the above
Answer:d

Q.3 Article addressed to deceased person
a. Delivery such articles to any near relative of the deceased who may have applied for them in case uninsured article
b. Delivery such articles to any near relative of the deceased who may have applied for them in case do not appear to contain any valuable property
c. Delivery such articles to any near relative of the deceased who may have applied for them in case no counter –claimant or likelihood of dispute
d. All the above
Answer:d

Q.4 Size limit of letter and roll is
a. Min11X7cm & max 60X90cm, min 10X17cm & max 88X100cm
b. Min10X7cm & max 50X100cm, min 15X25cm &max 80X100cm
c. Min11X22cm & max 60X40cm, min 20X17cm &max 90X100cm
d. None of these
Answer:a

Q.5 Size limit of Inland letter card folded and unfolded is
a. Min15.2X9cm & max 21X10cm, min 28.2X18.2cm max 30X21cm
b. Min10X7cm & max 50X100cm, min 15X25cm &max 80X100cm
c. Min11X22cm & max 60X40cm, min 20X17cm &max 90X100cm
d. None of these
Answer:a

Q.6 Post card of private manufacture size limit is
a. Min10X7cm & max 50X100cm, min 15X25cm &max 80X100cm
b. Max 15 cm x 10.5 Cm, min 10X7 cm
c. Min11X22cm & max 60X40cm, min 20X17cm &max 90X100cm
d. None of these
Answer:b

Q.7 Recorded delivery fee and intimation fee is
a. 3, 4
b. 5,6
c. 2,1
d. None of these
Answer:c

Q.8 Complaint can be made in case of recorded delivery is within
a. One month
b. Six month
c. Two month
d. Cannot be made
Answer:b

Q.9 Fee for availing business reply service
a. Apr to Jun -100, Jul to Sep-75, Oct to Dec-50, Jan to Mar -25
b. Apr to Jun -200, Jul to Sep-150, Oct to Dec-100, Jan to Mar -50
c. Apr to Jun -250, Jul to Sep-150, Oct to Dec-75, Jan to Mar -50
d. Free of cost
Answer:b

Q.10 Book packet may contain
a. News papers, publications of all kinds,
b. Printed books, paper, parchment
c. Cardboard either blank or printed
d. All the above
Answer:d

Q.11 Size limit of book packet roll and other than roll is
a. Min 10X17 cm & max 80X100, 10X7 cm & 60X30X30 cm
b. Max 15 cm x 10.5 Cm min 10X7 cm
c. Min11X22cm & max 60X40cm, min 20X17cm &max 90X100cm
d. None of these
Answer:a

Q.12 The weight limit of book packet is
a. 4 KG
b. 2 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 5 KG
Answer:d

Q.13 The weight limit of book packet containing periodicals
a. 4 KG
b. 2 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 5 KG
Answer: d

Q.14 The weight limit of book pattern and sample packets is
a. 4 KG
b. 2 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 5 KG
Answer: b

Q.15 The weight limit blind literature packet is
a. 4 KG
b. 2 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 7 KG
Answer: d

Q.16 The following charge are exempted to blind literature packet
a. Registration
b. Fee for ackn
c. Fee for the attested copy of receipt
d. All the above
Answer:d

Q.17 License for Registered newspaper is issued by
a. DG Posts
b. Head of the circle
c. SSP/SP
d. PMG
Answer: c

Q.18 Late fee for renewal of regd news paper is
a. 5/-
b. 6/-
c. 3/-
d. Free of cost
Answer : a

Q.19 Renewal charge of reg news paper is
a. 5/-
b. 6/-
c. 3/-
d. Free of cost
Answer: d

Q.20 Parcel can be sent by UR up to
a. 4 KG
b. 5 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 2 KG
Answer: a

Q.21 Parcel can be booked at BO is
a. 4 KG
b. 5 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 10 KG
Answer: d

Q.22 Parcel can be booked at SO is
a. 4 KG
b. 5 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 10 KG
Answer: c

Q.23 Max size limit of parcel is
a. Length 1 mtr and length and girth is 1.80mtr
b. Length 2 mtr and length and girth is 1.900mtr
c. Length 3 mtr and length and girth is 1.20mtr
d. None of these
Answer: a

Q.24 No compensation will be payable in case
a. For loss or damage caused by the fault or negligence of the sender
b. Article is prohibited by transmission by post
c. For damage in case in which the contents of the registered article are liquid or perishable articles or articles of and exceptionally fragile nature.
d. All the above
Answer: d

Q.25 In which cases registration is compulsory
a. Any parcel exceed 4 kg
b. Any insured article
c. Any VP article
d. All the above
Answer: d

MCQ for IPO paper-1

Q.1 Night Post Office may extend up to and by
a. 0830 pm ,DG posts
b. 0700pm,HOC
c. 1000pm, PMG
d. 0600pm,SSP
Answer : a

Q.2Franking machine has
a. Value die
b. License die
c. Both a&b
d. None of this
Answer : c

Q.3 Franking article can be posted by
a. Any post office
b. Only two post office
c. Head office
d. All sub offices
Answer : b

Q.4  Franking machine license is issued by
a. Head of the cirlcle
b. Head of the division
c. DG posts
d. Any of these
Answer : b

Q.5 Window delivery ticket is a
a. Daily docket
b. The receipt given by PO
c. ID of Franking machine licensee’s representative
d. None of these
Answer: c

Q.6 Rebate available at the time of reset of meter is
a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 1.50%
Answer : b

Q.7 Error on franking impression the refund will be claimed by firm/institute within_____ and ___ of less deduction
a. two month, 2%
b. three month, 4%
c. one month, 5%
d. six month, 1%
Answer :c

Q.8 Franking meter reset will be made by
a. PA
b. Postman
c. LSG postmaster
d. PRI and above status
Answer:d

Q.9 Prepayment of postage on cash facility is authorized by and how much letter may be posted to have these facility.
a. HOC,UR-500 big city and 250 small city, Reg -50
b. DG post, UR-1000 big city and 500 small city, Reg -100
c. Head of the division UR-5000 big city and 1000 small city, Reg -500
d. None of these
Answer:a

Q.10 Recall of postal article fee for each article is
a. 9/-
b. 6/-
c. 3/-
d. Free of cost
Answer:b

Q.11 Window delivery will be made in case of insured article vale is more than
a. 500
b. 100
c. 200
d. 300
Answer:a

Q.12 Limit of detain article in post office which are received for delivery inland & foreign article
a. 15 days and 30 days
b. 7 and 15 days
c. 30 days and 45 days
d. None of these
Answer:b

Q.13 Fee for availing post box facility is
a. 150 per year and 50 per quarterly
b. 250 per year / 100 quarterly
c. 100 per year / 50 quarterly
d. None of these
Answer:a

Q.14 Fee for availing facility of box and post bag is combine is
a. 150 per year and 50 per quarterly
b. 250 per year / 80 quarterly
c. 100 per year / 50 quarterly
d. None of these
Answer:b

Q.15 Cost of window delivery ticket is
a. 9/-
b. 6/-
c. 3/-
d. Free of cost
Answer:d

Q.16 Cost of Identity card is
a. 9/-
b. 6/-
c. 3/-
d. Free of cost
Answer:a

Q.17 Validity period of ID card is
a. 1 Year
b. 2 Year
c. Six month
d. 3 year
Answer:d

Q.18 Poste Restante article can be detained in post office
a. 7 days
b. 1 month
c. 15 days
d. Can not be detain
Answer:b

Q.19 Redirection fee of parcels within delivery area /original address and sender in case of unclaimed parcel is
a. 9/-
b. 6/-
c. 3/-
d. Free of cost
Answer:d

Q.20 Redirection fee of parcels except delivery area /original address is
a. Postage plus registration fee
b. Full postage
c. Half the prepaid rate
d. Free of cost
Answer:d

Q.21 Suggestion & complaint book are maintained by
a. Head Post Office
b. Sub Post Office
c. Circle Office
d. All Post Offices
Answer:d

Q.22 Size limit of ID card is
a. 88mmX 63mm
b. 100mmX 70mm
c. 11mmX 22mm
d. None of these
Answer: a

Q.23 Instruction regarding change of residence is valid for
a. 1 month
b. 1 year
c. 3 years
d. 5 Years
Answer:c

Q.24 Authority to whom complaint should be addressed
a. Local Supdt.and PM in case first class PO
b. HOC
c. DG Posts
d. PMG
Answer:a

Q.25 Circle complaint officer is
a. Vigilance officer
b. CPMG
c. PMG
d. Head of division
Answer: a

Thursday 31 October 2019

MCQ for IPO Paper 2

1) When did the Fundamental Rules come into force to all Government
servants?
(a) 15-8-1947 (b) 1-1-1922
(c) 20-6-1960 (d) 26-1-1950
Ans: b

2) The Fundamental Rules became applicable to Defence Accounts
Department personnel with effect from
(a) 1-7-1976 (b) 1-4-1976
(c) 1-4-1972 (d) 31-12-2003
Ans:a

3) What are the matters for which powers cannot be re-delegated by the
administrative ministries to the subordinate authorities under FR?
(a) Creation of posts
(b) Write-off of losses.
(c) Re-appropriation exceeding 10% of the original budget provision
by electronic form
(d) All the above
Ans: d

4) Who has the powers of interpreting the Fundamental Rules?
(a) C and AG (b) President of India
(c) Ministry of Finance (d) Prime Minister of India
Ans: b

5) Which Allowance cannot be treated as a Compensatory Allowance?
(a) Special Compensatory Allowance
(b) Bad Climate Allowance
(c) Project Allowance
(d) Sumptuary Allowance
Ans: d

6) Fill up the blank with a correct word from the options given below:
Lien means the ………............…. of a Government servant to hold a post to
which he has been appointed on a regular basis.
(a) Post (b) Designation
(c) Title (d) Position
Ans: C

7) Foreign service means service in which a Government servant receives
his pay with the sanction of the Government from—
(a) The Consolidated Fund of India
(b) The Consolidated Fund of a State
(c) The Consolidated Fund of Union Territory
(d) Any source other than the above
Ans:d

8) A Government servant retains a Lien acquired on a post during
(a) Suspension (b) Foreign service
(c) The period of leave (d) All the above
Ans: d

9) A Lien of a Government servant to a post shall not be retained when—
(a) he proceeds on immediate absorption outside his cadre
(b) on deputation beyond the maximum period
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: c

10)Of the following,specify the post which is eligible to get Non-Practising
Allowance?
(a) Paramedical Staff
(b) Medical Staff of Central Services other than CGHS Services
(c) Nursing Staff
(d) Pharmacist
Ans: b

11) Which of the periods mentioned below are treated as duty ?
(a) Period of training before appointment to Group ‘C’ and Group ‘D’
(b) Treatment of enforced halts
(c) Attending Departmental examinations
(d) All the above
Ans:d

12.) The salary of a Government servant who is in foreign service is paid
from—
(a) The Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Foreign employer with the sanction of the Government
(c) The Consolidated Fund of a State
(d) The Consolidated Fund of a Union Territory
Ans: b

13) Substantive Pay does not include—
(a) Special Pay (b) Personal Pay
(c) Emoluments (d) All the above
Ans:d

14) What is the maximum period of retention of lien when appointed to
another Central Government Office / State Government in normal
course?
(a) 4 years (b) 2 years (c) 5 years (d) 6 years
Ans: b

15)  What are the disabilities to a Government servant when interruption orbreak in service occurs under FR 17-A?
(a) Quasi-permanency
(b) Leave Travel Concession
(c) Eligibility for appearing in departmental examinations, for which
a minimum period of continuous service is required
(d) All the above
Ans: d

16) under which Rule is pay fixation done when a Government servant is
promoted from one post to another post involving higher responsibilities?
(a) FR 21 (b) FR 22 (I) (a) (1)
(c) FR 19 (d) FR 20
Ans: b

17) Which of the following periods will not be counted for the purpose of
increment?
(a) All kinds of duty
(b) Joining Time
(c) EXOL without MC for more than six months
(d) Foreign service
Ans[:C
18) Who is competent to issue a certificate under FR 26 (b) (ii) in case of
an official officiating in a higher post for the leave periods excluding
EXOL?
(a) Leave Sanctioning Authority
  (b) Competent Authority
(c) Appointing Authority
(d) Head of Office
Ans: c

19) From when will all kinds of leave excluding EXOL without Medical
Certificate count for increment?
(a) 22-1-1963
  (b) 1-4-1976
(c) 1-4-1972
(d) 22-10-1963
Ans:d

20) Which of the following does not qualify for grant of honorarium to
a Government servant?
(a) The work should be special and of an occasional or intermittent
nature
(b) A temporary increase in work
(c) The work should be either laborious or of such special merit
(d) The work should be undertaken with the prior consent of the
Government
Ans: b

21)Who is competent to grant Advance Increment?
(a) Authorities competent to create a post (Permanent / Temporary)
(b) Head of the Office
(c) Head of the Department
(d) Finance Secretary
Ans: a

22) Identify the cases for which powers under FR 27 are not to be invokedfor grant of premature increments?
(a) As reward for meritorious work
(b) In disregard of the advice given by the Ministry of Finance in any
individual case for fixation of pay
(c) In disregard of the normal rules governing fixation of pay except in
cases of hardship or where the circumstances are unusual
(d) All the above
Ans:d

23) Where should the Medical Certificates of Fitness produced on first appointment be kept after making the necessary entry?
(a) In safe custody along with other    documents connected with
service
(b) Service Book of the Official
(c) APAR of the Official
(d) Separate Guard Book
Ans: b

24) A Government servant holding a post in the pay Level 10 was formally
appointed from 1-3-2017 to hold additional charge of another post in the
same office in the same cadre as a temporary measure for three months.
What is his entitlement for the period of his additional charge?
(a) 25% of additional pay
(b) Honorarium of Rs.1,000 per month
(c) A lumpsum of Rs. 500 per month
(d) No additional pay / remuneration
Ans: d

25) Which FundamentalRule imposes a restriction on a Governmentservant,
whose duties involve carrying out scientific or technical research, from
applying for a patent for an invention made him?
(a) FR 48 (b) FR 48-A (c) FR 49 (d) FR 50
Ans: b

MCQ on IPO Paper-1

1) When a VP article is delivered as ordinary registered article and the VP amount subsequently collected the amount should be taken to
a) MO issue and VPMO issued
b) To UCR and the amount paid to the sender charging under UCP
c) To UCR and VPMO issued by per-contra charge to UCP
d) Amount sent by service MO to the sender
Ans: c

2) A VP articles on which intimation has been served an lying in the deposit for seven days can be retained
a) For further seven days without any fees
b) For further seven days on payment of fees
c) For fifteen days on payment of fees
d) Cannot be retained return to sender after 7 days
Ans: b

3) In case of refused/unclaimed VP articles the VPMO form should be
a) Returned back to sender
b) Destroyed
c) Filled in the office
d) Upper portion of MO form destroyed and lower portion with sender’s certificate to be file
Ans:d

4) No redirection fee is charge on redirection of a parcel
a) If the revised address of the addressee is within the same delivery office
b) If the revised address of the addressee is within the same post town
c) If the parcel is returned to sender and if the sender resides in a different
address within the delivery area of the office or within the same post town
d) All the above
Ans: d

5) The amount noted for remittance to sender of VP article
a) Can be altered free of cost at the request of the sender
b) Can be altered on payment of prescribed fee at the request of the sender
c) Can only recall the article
d) None of these
Ans: a

6) Postage stamps can be affixed to IPOs to made up broken amount on the condition
a) The no of stamp should not exceed 3
b) Amount should not exceed 4
c) Total value of IPO including the stamps affixed there in should not exceed 100
d) All the above
Ans:d

7) Unpaid postage abstract is a record in form______-which is to be maintained by every_____ and_______to record the _______of unpaid articles
a) MS-88, Account office, Circle account office, registered
b) ACG 45, Sub office and branch office, receipt
c) ACG 45 , Head office and sub office, receipt and dispatch
d) ACG 45, Account office, Head office, receipt and dispatch
Ans: c

8) To availing registered journals facility at least ____ regd articles has to be booked monthly
a) 150 b) 200
c) 250 d) 500
Ans:b

9)The sender of an inland regd article may obtain attested copy of the
addressee’s receipt on application made to the Post office within_____ of the date on which the addressee signed the original receipt.
a) 3 months b) 4 months
c) 6 months d) One year
Ans: c

10) Postmaster order book (MS-1) maintained in
a) All sub offices b) All Branch offices
c) All Head offices d) All the above
Ans: c

MCQ for IPO Paper 1

1) Inward foreign parcels on which intimation served can be kept in deposit at the PO for
a) 15 days b) 7 days
c) One month d) Two month
Ans: a

2) Redirection fee due on refused inland parcel on redelivery to sender
a) Can be cancelled without any restriction.
b) Can be cancelled
c) Can be cancelled when delivered at the office of issue/at the same post town
d) None of these
Ans: c

3)If the addressee of inward foreign parcel is aggrieved on the customs duty imposed on the article, it
a) Should be taken delivery by the addressee and referred to customs authorities
b) Has no option except to take delivery or refuse to take delivery
c) Can request for return of the article to the customs for reassessment
d) None of thes
Ans: c

4) Instructions regarding authorizing Post Office to pay money order to another person are valid for
a) One year b) Two years
c) Three years d) Five year
Ans: c

5) If the addressee of ordinary article is not traceable and address of the sender is not noted on the article
a) The article is kept in office undelivered
b) The beat postman tries to find out the addressee once again
c) The deposit PA forward it RLO after passing remark in red ink after keeping in deposit for 7 days
d) The article may be destroyed with permission of Postmaster / Sub postmaster .
Ans: c

6) An article for which notice of arrival has been tendered to the addressee, it
a) Can be redirected to a new address
b) Cannot be redirected to address elsewhere
c) Can be redirected on collection of specified fee
d) None of these
Ans: b

7) Permanent instructions are valid for
a) One year b) Two years
c) Three years d) Five years
Ans: c

8) Unclaimed unregistered article marked ‘ Poste restante’ should be disposed
a) Two months b) After 7 days
c) After 15 days d) After one month
Ans: d

9)  Unclaimed VP article marked ‘ Poste restante’ should be disposed of
a) Two months b) After 7 days
c) After 15 days d) After one month
Ans:b

10) Documentation in Form CN-23 accompanying international mail articles serves the purpose of .
a) Despatch Note
b) Customs declaration
c) Statement of charges
d) Report in respect of irregularities
Ans: b

MCQ on IPO Paper 1

1)Book of addresses instructions is maintained by
a) Deposit Assistant b) Postmaster
c) Mail Assistant d) Sorting Assistant
Ans: A

2) Insured bags/insured bundles received must be opened
a) By the treasurer in the presence of Postmaster
b) By the registration PA
c) By the Postmaster
d) By the registration PA in the presence of the Postmaster
Ans: D

3) Acknowledgement card attached to an unclaimed/returned registered article for
redelivery to sender should be
a) Delivered back to sender along with article
b) Filled along with delivery slips
c) Destroyed
d) None of these
Ans: C

4) Refused foreign registered articles of letter mail
a) Should be disposed in the same manner of inland registered letter mail
b) Should be sent to the foreign office of exchange
c) Should be sent to RLO though the PO at the HQ of the circle
d) None of these
Ans: C

5) The charges to be collected when a registred letter already delivered is
presented with a revised address for registration.
a) Cannot be registered
b) Fresh postage and registration charges to be paid
c) Postage alone to be collected
d) Fresh registration fee is to be collected
Ans: D

6)  Insured articles addressed to minor may be delivered to
a) The minor to whom addressed
b) It may be delivered to the neighbors
c) No delivery of insured article be made
d) The minor in the presence of person who take care of the minor
Ans: D

7) Unclaimed articles of letter mail with remarks ‘not known’ and ‘left’ are returned to sender
a) After 7 days   b) After 10 days
c) After 15 days d) After one month
Ans: A

8) VP article received for delivery without VPMO form
a) Article will be returned to the sender immediately
b) Article will be returned to RLO
c) MO form will be filled in with reference to the entries available on the article and the article will be sent out for delivery
d) Article will be kept in deposit till receipt of VPMO form
Ans: C

9) Fee to be collected when a regd parcel is redirected to the neighboring District is
a) Nil
b) Half rate
c) Amount of postage prepaid on the parcel
d) Half the rate excluding the registration charge
Ans: d

10) High value station MO bundle is justified when the number of HVMO for a particular station exceeds .
 a)One b)Four c)Three d) Two
Ans: A

FAQs on the time limit for disposal of disciplinary cases

What   is the time   limit   for   charged officer   to submit   his written statement of defence on charge sheet?

It is 15 days, which can be further extended by a period not exceeding 15 days at a time for reasons to be recorded in writing by the Disciplinary Authority or any other authority authorized by the Disciplinary Authority on his behalf. The overall limit for filing of reply should not be extended beyond 45 days from the receipt of the articles of charge by the charged officer. [Sub Rule 4 in Rule 14 of CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965]

What is the time limit for producing requisite documents claimed by charged officer during?

Sub rule (13) in Rule 14 provides for producing the documents or issue of non-availability certificate within a period of one month of the receipt of such requisition.

What  is  the  time  period  for  the  Presenting Officer   to  produce the evidence by which  he proposes to prove  the articles of charge if the Government Servant fails to appear within the specified time or refuses or omits  to plead?

It is 30 days. [Sub rule (11) in Rule 14 of CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965]

What  is  the  time  period  for  inspecting the  documents produced by Presenting Officer  for the purpose of preparing his defence?

Within five days of the order passed by Inquiring Authority, which can be further extended not exceeding 5 days. [Sub rule (11) (i) in Rule 14 of CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965]

What is the notice period for production of any documents, which are in   possession of   Government but   not   mentioned in   the   list   of documents served with the charge sheet but a request in this regard is made by the Charged Officer?

The Inquiring Authority can allow a time of 10 days for the purpose, which can further be extended by not exceeding 10 days. [Sub rule (11) (iii) in Rule 14 of CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965]

What   is  the  time   limit   provided    for  adjournment before   close   of  the case  for  Presenting    Officer   to  produce   evidences not  included    in  the list  given  to  Charged   officer   or  Inquiring   Authority himself   call  for  new evidence   or recall  and  reexamine   any witness?

Such adjournment   is done for 3 clear days excluding the day of adjournment and the day to which the inquiry is adjourned.   [Sub rule 15 in Rule 14 of CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965]

What is the time limit for completing    the inquiry   and submit   report   by Inquiring   Authority?

In terms  of  notification   No  G.S.R.  548  (E)  dated  02.06.2017,  the  Inquiring Authority   should  conclude  the  inquiry  and  submit  his report within  6 months from  the  date  of receipt  of order  of his appointment.   An  additional  time  not exceeding   six months  for completing  the inquiry can be allowed  at a time on the   basis   of  sufficient   and  good   reasons,   to  be  recorded   in  writing   by Disciplinary  Authority  [Sub rule (24) in Rule 14 of CCS (CCA)  Rules,  1965]

Whether     time    limit    of   6   months     decided    vide    notification      dated 02.06.2017   is also   applicable    to cases   where   Inquiring    Authority    was appointed    prior to the 02.06.2017?

Yes.  Ideally  such  cases  should  have  been  completed,   as  per the time  limit prescribed   in the said notification,  if those  cases  are still pending,  the period of six  months  for  completing  the  inquiry  can  be reckoned  w.ef.  02.06.2017 and extension should be sought, if required.

What is the time limit for furnishing    written   representation     by charged officer   on the advice of UPSC?

It is 15 days from the receipt of the copy of advice of UPSC by the charged officer.  [Sub rule (3)(b) in Rule 15 of CCS (CCA)  Rules,  1965]

What   is the   time   limit   for   sending    proposal    to eve for first   stage advice?

If vigilance angle is involved in any complaint, this case should be referred to CVC   for   their   1st stage   advice within   one   month of   the   receipt   of investigation report. If vigilance angle is not involved, the case should be put up to disciplinary authority for taking a decision to initiate disciplinary action under  CCS  (CCA)  Rules within  one  month from  the  date  of  receipt of investigation  report.  [DoP&T's  O.M.  No.  425/04/2012-AVD-IV (A) dated 29.11.2012]

What is the time limit  to put up the case to Disciplinary Authority after receipt  of  first  stage  advice  of  CVC for  taking  a decision to  initiate disciplinary proceeding?

Within one month of the receipt of first stage advice of CVC. [Do P&T's O.M. No. 425/04/2012-AVD-IV(A) dated 29.11.2012]

What is the time limit to issue a charge sheet to Charged Officer once a decision is taken by Disciplinary Authority to initiate disciplinary proceeding?

The charge sheet should be issued to Charged Officer within a week from the date of receipt of the decision of Disciplinary Authority. [ DoP&T's O.M. No. 425/04/2012-AVD-IV(A) dated 29.11.2012]


What is the time limit for seeking representation of Charged Officer on inquiry report and disagreement of Disciplinary Authority, if any on it?

The Charged Officer may be allowed 15 days to submit, if he so desires, his written representation or submission to the Disciplinary authority. [DoP&T's O.M. No. 11012/13/85-Estt.(A) dated 29.06.1989]

Question: What  is  the  time  limit  for  seeking second  stage  advice  of  CVC,  if required or to UPSC for their advice?

It should be sent to CVC or UPSC within one month from the date of receipt of representation of Charged Officer on Inquiry Report. (CVC's circular No.000/VGL/18 datd 23.05.2000)

Question: What is the time limit for concluding major penalty proceeding?

Answer:   It should be completed within 18 months from the date of issue of the charge sheet to Charged Officer. [DoP&T's O.M. No. 372/3/2007-AVD-1I1(VoI.10) dated 14.10.2013]