Sunday, 10 November 2019

MCQ on RTI Act


1) The first State to introduce the a law on Right to information was 
a) Tamil Nadu
b) UP
c) Maharashtra
d) Gujarat
Ans:A

2) The time limit specified in the RTI Act, 2005 for the Central / State Information Commissions to 
decide on complaints is 
a) 15 days 
b) One month 
c) Two months 
d) No such time limit has been specifie
Ans:D

3) The First Appellate Authority under RTI Act should decide on first appeals 
a) Within 30 days from the receipt of the first appeals.
b) In less number of days than the PIO concerned took to take a decision on the application
c) In exceptional cases within 45 days from the date of receipt of the appeal, if the reasons are  recorded. 
d) (a)and (c) above

Ans:D

4) Central of State Public Information Officer may allow access to information exempted under 
Section 8 (1) of the RTI Act 2005 if public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the  protected interests. 
a) The statement is correct.
b) The statement is correct but it can be done only after approval of Appellate Authority.
c) The statement is correct but it can be done only after the approval of CIC
d) None of these
Ans:A

5) What does Right to Information mean? 
a) Inspect works, documents, records.
b) Take notes , extract or certified copies of documents or records.
c) Take certified samples of material.
d) All the above
Ans:D

6) What is the maximum amount if penalty under RTI Act 2005 that can be imposed on CPIO? 
a) Rs. 300/-
b) Rs. 25,000/-
c) Rs. 75,000/-
d) Rs. 1,00,000/
Ans:B

7) With reference to the RTI Act, which of the following statement/s is/ are true? 
a) A third party is a person other than the citizen making a request 
b) Third party includes a public authority also.
c) Both (a) & (b) are true.
d) Neither (a) nor (b) is true.
Ans:C

8) The basic object of the Right to Information Act 2005 is: 
a) To empower the citizens,
b) Promote transparency and accountability in the working of the Government
c) Contain corruption,
d) All the above
Ans:D

9) Which of the following is not correct? 
a) The CPIO cannot seek the assistance of any other officer for proper discharge of his or her 
duties
b) The CPIO may seek the assistance of any other officer for proper discharge of his or her duties
c) Every CPIO shall deal with requests from persons seeking such information and render  reasonable assistance to the persons seeking such information
d) CPIO should provide information if not exempted within 30 days
Ans:A

10) Under RTI Act 2005, the information is provided to the applicant free of cost? 
i. If the applicant is a BPL person 
ii. Where a public authority fails to provide information within 30 days of receipt of  application 
iii. Where a public authority fails to provide information within 45 days of receipt of  application 
a) (i)only
b) (ii)only 
c) (iii)only 
d) Both (i) and (ii)
Ans:D

11) Under RTI Act 2005 which of the following statements is correct? 
i. lnformation, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament can be denied 
ii. lnformation, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of State  Legislature can be denied 
iii. lnformation, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament  cannot be denied 
iv. lnformation, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of State  Legislature cannot be denied 
a) (i)and (ii) only 
b) (ii)and (iii) only
c) (iii)and (iv) only
d) (iv)and (i) only
Ans:A

12) As per section 12 (2) of RTI Act 2005, the Central Information Commission shall consist of: 
a) The Chief information Commissioner and such number of Central Information Commissioners 
not exceeding ten as may be deemed necessary.
b) The Chief information Commissioner and such number of Central Information Commissioners 
not exceeding five as may be deemed necessary.
c) The Chief information Commissioner and such number of Central Information Commissioners 
not exceeding two as may be deemed necessary.
d) The Chief information Commissioner and such number of Central Information Commissioners 
not exceeding three as may be deemed necessary.
Ans:a

13) Who can place an Information Commissioner under suspension? 
i. The President of India 
ii. The Prime Minister of India 
iii. The Chief Justice of India 
a) (i)only
b) (i)and (ii) only 
c) (i)and (iii) only 
d) All the above
Ans:A

14) Choose the correct option as per section 13 (5) of RTI Act 2005? 
a) The salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of service of Chief  Information Commissioner is the same as that of the Chief Election Commissioner.
b) The salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of service of Chief  Information Commissioner is the same as that of the Chief Justice of High Court.
c) The salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of service of Chief  Information Commissioner is the same as that of the Justice of High Court.
d) The salaries and allowances payable to and other terms and conditions of service of Chief  Information Commissioner is the same as that of the Justice of Supreme Court
Ans:A

15) It shall be of the duty of the Central Information Commission to receive and enquire into a  complaint from any person 
i. Who has not been given a response to a request for information or access to  information within the time limit specified under RTI Act 2005. 
ii. Who has been required to pay an amount of fee which he or she consider unreasonable; 
iii. Issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents. 
a) (i)only
b) (ii)only
c) (iii)only 
d) All of above
Ans:D

16) The Central Information Commission while inquiring into any matter under section 18 of RTI  Act; 
i. Cannot compel a person to give written evidence on oath like a Civil Court does. 
ii. Can compel a person to give written evidence on oath like a Civil Court does. 
iii. Can enforce that attendance of a person like a Civil Court does 
Options :
a) (ii)and (iii) only 
b) (iii)and (i) only 
c) (i)and (ii) only 
d) (i)only
Ans:A

17) The Central Information Commission while inquiring into any matter under section 18 of RTI 
Act; 
i. Cannot requisition any public record or copies thereof from any court or office, 
ii. Can requisition any public record or copies thereof from any court or office, 
iii. Cannot receive evidence on affidavit like a Civil Court does. 
a) (i)only
b) (iii)only
c) (ii)only
d) (i)and (iii) only
Ans:C

18) Who can file an appeal against the decision of the CPIO under RTI Act? 
i. The information seeker 
ii. The Third party aggrieved by the order of the CPIO 
iii. Any citizen 
Options : 
a) (i)only 
b) (i)and (ii) only 
c) (iii)only 
d) (ii)and (iii) only
Ans:B

19) Which one of the following statements is true? 
i. In any appellate proceedings the onus lies on CPIO to prove that he acted diligently 
ii. ln any appellate proceedings the onus lies on information seeker to prove that the CPIO 
did not act diligently. 
iii. The Information Commission does not have powers to recommend disciplinary action  against CPIO. 
Options : 
a) (i)only
b) (ii)only
c) (ii)and (iii) only 
d) (i)and (ii) only
Ans:A

20) Which of the following statements is true? 
i. Which information sought for is in respect of allegations of violation of human rights by  security agencies, it shall only be provided after the approval of Central Government. 
ii. Information is respect of allegations of violation of human rights by security agencies is  fully exempt from disclosure under RTI Act. 
iii. When information sought for is in respect of allegations of violation of human rights by  security agencies, it shall only be provided after the approval of Central Information 
Commission. 
Options : 
a) (i)only 
b) (ii)only
c) (iii)only
d) (i)and (iii) only
Ans: C

21) Which of the following organizations is included in Schedule Two of the RTI Act? 
a) Border Security Force
b) “Central Reserve Police Force. 
c) National Security Guards.
d) All the three above.
Ans:D

22) The Provision relating to 'suo motu' disclosure is contained in 
a) Section 4 of RTI Act
b) Section 11 of RTI Act
c) Section 22 of RTI Act
d) Section 24 of RTI Act
Ans:A

Saturday, 9 November 2019

MCQ on Schedule of Financial powers

The Divisional supdt may sanction up to Rs ____ in each case for purchase of equipments and consumables connected with computer and other equipments.

a) 400/- b) 15,000/-
c) 5000/- d) 2500/-

Ans: Rs.15,000/-

The Divisional supdt may sanction Divisional office Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and fitting for office.

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/-
And: B

The Divisional supdt may sanction Sub Divisional office Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and fitting for office.

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 15000/-
Ans:D. 

The Divisional supdt may sanction Gazetted Head office with Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and fitting

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/-
Ans:D. 

The Divisional supdt may sanction HSG/LSG  office with Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and fitting

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/-
Ans:C
  
The Divisional supdt may sanction Head office with Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and fitting
a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/-
Ans:C

The Divisional supdt may sanction LSG SO Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and fitting for office.

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 50000/- d) 75000/-
Ans: B

The Divisional supdt may sanction EDSO/EDBO Rs_____ p.a purchase of furniture and f itting for office.

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 75000/-
Ans: C

The Divisional supdt may sanction up to Rs_____ in each case for hiring examination and for other purpose etc holding customers meet etc

a) 25000/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 75000/-
Ans: C

The Divisional supdt may sanction up to Rs____ per month in each case for mail conveyance

a) 2500/- b) 30000/-
c) 5000/- d) 10000/-
Ans: D

Friday, 1 November 2019

MCQ for IPO Paper 3

1. Constitution of India is a comprehensive document containing …… Articles and …….. Schedules.
(a) 365, 22 (b) 385, 12
(c) 395, 12 (d) 375,22
Ans: c

2. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee
of the Constituent Committee which framed the Constitution of India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: b

3. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly ?
(a) 26th November, 1949
(b) 26th January, 1950
(c) 15th August, 1947
(d) 1st January, 1950
Ans: a

4. A person will be eligible to be elected as President of India only if he
(a) is a citizen of India
(b) has completed 35 years
(c) has qualified for election as a member of the house of the people
(d) all the above
Ans: d

5. The Supreme Court of India shall consist of a Chief Justice and ….... otherJudges.
(a) three (b) seven (c) fifteen (d) thirty
Ans: d

6. What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha ?
(a) 520 (b) 540 (c) 552 (d) 500
Ans: c

7. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive has been provided in which
of the following parts of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of
(d) The Seventh Schedule
Ans: c

8: which article of the Constitution of India has the Joint Sitting of the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha been provided ?
(a) Article 101 (b) Article 108
(c) Article 133 (d) Article 102
Ans: b

9. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Upper House within—
(a) 10 days (b) 14 days
(c) 20 days (d) 30 days
Ans: b

10: Who among the following is / are not appointed by the President of India ?
(a) Governors of the States
(b) Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts
(c) Vice-President
(d) Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court
Ans: c

11. If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha intends to vacate his office before the
expiry of his term, he sends his resignation to the—
(a) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) Leader of the House (Lok Sabha)
(c) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) President of India
Ans: c

12. The Governor of a State is appointed by—
(a) The State Legislature
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President
(d) The Parliament
Ans: c

13. When can the President declare emergency?
(a) When there is a breakdown of the constitutional machinery
(b) When security of India is threatened
(c) When financial stability is endangered
(d) Any or all of the above
Ans: d

14 . Which of the following amendments relates to the Local Government Institutions?
(a) 52nd Amendment
(b) 73rd Amendment
(c) 66th Amendment
(d) 70th Amendment
Ans: b

15 . Which was the lengthiest amendment to the Constitution of India?
(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 30th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) Union Cabinet
Ans: c

16. Who presides over the Rajya Sabha?
(a) President
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Vice-President
(d) None of them
Ans: c

17. Which one of the following parts of the Indian Constitution enjoins
upon the State “to provide free and compulsory education for children
up to 14 years of age”?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Special Provisions related to certain classes
Ans: b

18. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the subject
‘Languages’ ?
(a) First (b) Eighth (c) Ninth (d) Tenth
Ans: b

19: Which of the following State Governors enjoys special powers with regard to the administration of tribal areas?
(a) Orissa (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar (d) Assam
Ans: d

20. When can a bill be referred to the Parliamentary Committee?
(a) Just after being placed in the Parliament
(b) After general debate / discussion in the second reading
(c) After partial debate / discussion
(d) After difference between two houses
Ans: b

21. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is appointed by—
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Judge of Supreme Court
(d) None of the above
Ans: a

22. Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with—
(a) autonomy of States
(b) the proclamation of President’s Rule in a State
(c) the removal of a Chief Minister
(d) the appointment of a Governor
Ans: b

23. In which case did the Supreme Court concede the right of Parliament to amend the Constitution, but denied it the right to amend the basic structure of the Constitution?
(a) Keshavananda Bharati Case
(b) Golak Nath Case
(c) Minerva Mills Case
(d) None of these
Ans: a

24. What is the term of office of a Governor ?
(a) Three years (b) Five years
(c) Ten years (d) Seven years
Ans: b

25. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the Union Territories ?
(a) Part VIII (b) Part V (c) Part VII
(d) Part IX
Ans: a

26. Which article of the Constitution of India deals with disputes relating to
water of inter-state rivers?
(a) 267 (b) 262 (c) 272 (d) 261
Ans: b

27. Which part of the Constitution deals with the Administrative Tribunals?
(a) Part XIV-A (b) Part XXIV-A
(c) Part XIII-A (d) None of the abov
Ans: a

28. Reservation of seats and special representation of certain community will cease to have effect after ….. years from commencement of Constitution.
(a) 70 (b) 100 (c) 50 (d) None
Ans: a

29. The official language of the Union shall be—
(a) English (b) Hindi
(c) Devanagiri (d) Sanskrit
Ans: b

30. Name the article of the Constitution which gives the powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution—
(a) 328 (b) 338 (c) 368 (d) 358
Ans: c

31. According to Schedule I of the Constitution, there are ….states and …
Union Territories—
(a) 26, 5 (b) 28, 9 (c) 26, 10 (d) 28, 5
Ans:b

32. Which Schedule speaks about the oaths of affirmations ?
(a) Fourth (b) Third
(c) Second (d) Seventh
Ans: b

33. What is the total number of seats allotted to all the States and Union
Territories in the Council of States, according to Fourth Schedule?
(a) 233 (b) 253 (c) 263 (d) 273
Ans: a

34. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India specifies the Tribal areas?
(a) Seventh (b) Sixth (c) Fifth (d) Firs
Ans: c

35. Which language does not form a part of the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) French (b) Konkani
(c) Sindhi (d) Kashmiri
Ans: a

36. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India specifies the list of Acts and
Regulations as defined in Article 31-B?
(a) Sixth (b) Eighth (c) Fifth (d) Ninth
Ans: d

37. Which Constitutional amendment provides 30% seats in village panchayats reserved for women in India?
(a) 70 (b) 71 (c) 73 (d) 74
Ans: c

38. The Constitution of India was adopted by—
(a) British Parliament
(b) Parliament of India
(c) Governor-General
(d) Constituent Assembly
Ans:d

39: The Constitution of India names our country as—
(a) Bharat (b) Hindustan
(c) India, that is Bharat (d) Aryavarta
Ans: c

40. A Constitution is ........
(a) A set of official laws
(b) A set of financial laws
(c) A basic structure defining powers of state and duties and rights of the citizen
(d) A set of ordinary laws
Ans: c

41. When was Madras state renamed as Tamil Nadu?
(a) 1970 (b) 1971 (c) 1968 (d) 1969
Ans:d

42. The first state to become bifurcated after independence was—
(a) Bengal (b) Assam (c) Punjab
(d) Bombay
Ans: d

43. The sequence in which the given terms are mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India is—
(a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
(b) Socialist, Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
(c) Secular, Socialist, Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
(d) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular, Republic

Ans: a

44. Matters on which Panchayats have Powers, Authority and Responsibilities
are listed in—
(a) Seventh Schedule
(b) Eleventh Schedule
(c) Tenth Schedule
(d) First Schedule
Ans: b

45. The method of amendment of Indian Constitution has been incorporated in Article—
(a) 368 (b) 299 (c) 378 (d) 301
Ans: a

46. Which article of the Constitution describes the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) 366 (b) 266 (c) 176 (d) 186
Ans:b

47. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj?
(a) 243-O (b) 243-A (c) 243 (d) 243-I
Ans: C

48. Which article defines Money Bills?
(a) 101 (b) 110 (c) 111 (d) 112
Ans: B

49. In the Concurrent list, how many subjects have been included?
(a) 42 (b) 43 (c) 45 (d) 47
Ans:d

MCQ for IPO Paper-1

Q.1 Period within complaints should be prepared in case of VP, loss /damage of regd& ins article, other complaint related to inland post, miscarriage /destruction of postal order & SP is
a. 12 month, 3 month, 6 month, 12 month, 1 month
b. 24 month, 6 month, 9 month, 1 month, 2 month
c. 36 month, 1 month, 6 month, 9 month, 2 month
d. 6 month, 3 month3 month, 9 month, 1 month
Answer:a

Q.2 legal responsibility of post office is exempted from
a. Any fault by individual
b. Loss, mis delivery or delay of , or damage to, any postal article in course of transmission by post
c. wrong payment or delay in payment by foreign postal administration of money order issued in India
d. All the above
Answer:d

Q.3 Article addressed to deceased person
a. Delivery such articles to any near relative of the deceased who may have applied for them in case uninsured article
b. Delivery such articles to any near relative of the deceased who may have applied for them in case do not appear to contain any valuable property
c. Delivery such articles to any near relative of the deceased who may have applied for them in case no counter –claimant or likelihood of dispute
d. All the above
Answer:d

Q.4 Size limit of letter and roll is
a. Min11X7cm & max 60X90cm, min 10X17cm & max 88X100cm
b. Min10X7cm & max 50X100cm, min 15X25cm &max 80X100cm
c. Min11X22cm & max 60X40cm, min 20X17cm &max 90X100cm
d. None of these
Answer:a

Q.5 Size limit of Inland letter card folded and unfolded is
a. Min15.2X9cm & max 21X10cm, min 28.2X18.2cm max 30X21cm
b. Min10X7cm & max 50X100cm, min 15X25cm &max 80X100cm
c. Min11X22cm & max 60X40cm, min 20X17cm &max 90X100cm
d. None of these
Answer:a

Q.6 Post card of private manufacture size limit is
a. Min10X7cm & max 50X100cm, min 15X25cm &max 80X100cm
b. Max 15 cm x 10.5 Cm, min 10X7 cm
c. Min11X22cm & max 60X40cm, min 20X17cm &max 90X100cm
d. None of these
Answer:b

Q.7 Recorded delivery fee and intimation fee is
a. 3, 4
b. 5,6
c. 2,1
d. None of these
Answer:c

Q.8 Complaint can be made in case of recorded delivery is within
a. One month
b. Six month
c. Two month
d. Cannot be made
Answer:b

Q.9 Fee for availing business reply service
a. Apr to Jun -100, Jul to Sep-75, Oct to Dec-50, Jan to Mar -25
b. Apr to Jun -200, Jul to Sep-150, Oct to Dec-100, Jan to Mar -50
c. Apr to Jun -250, Jul to Sep-150, Oct to Dec-75, Jan to Mar -50
d. Free of cost
Answer:b

Q.10 Book packet may contain
a. News papers, publications of all kinds,
b. Printed books, paper, parchment
c. Cardboard either blank or printed
d. All the above
Answer:d

Q.11 Size limit of book packet roll and other than roll is
a. Min 10X17 cm & max 80X100, 10X7 cm & 60X30X30 cm
b. Max 15 cm x 10.5 Cm min 10X7 cm
c. Min11X22cm & max 60X40cm, min 20X17cm &max 90X100cm
d. None of these
Answer:a

Q.12 The weight limit of book packet is
a. 4 KG
b. 2 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 5 KG
Answer:d

Q.13 The weight limit of book packet containing periodicals
a. 4 KG
b. 2 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 5 KG
Answer: d

Q.14 The weight limit of book pattern and sample packets is
a. 4 KG
b. 2 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 5 KG
Answer: b

Q.15 The weight limit blind literature packet is
a. 4 KG
b. 2 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 7 KG
Answer: d

Q.16 The following charge are exempted to blind literature packet
a. Registration
b. Fee for ackn
c. Fee for the attested copy of receipt
d. All the above
Answer:d

Q.17 License for Registered newspaper is issued by
a. DG Posts
b. Head of the circle
c. SSP/SP
d. PMG
Answer: c

Q.18 Late fee for renewal of regd news paper is
a. 5/-
b. 6/-
c. 3/-
d. Free of cost
Answer : a

Q.19 Renewal charge of reg news paper is
a. 5/-
b. 6/-
c. 3/-
d. Free of cost
Answer: d

Q.20 Parcel can be sent by UR up to
a. 4 KG
b. 5 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 2 KG
Answer: a

Q.21 Parcel can be booked at BO is
a. 4 KG
b. 5 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 10 KG
Answer: d

Q.22 Parcel can be booked at SO is
a. 4 KG
b. 5 KG
c. 20 KG
d. 10 KG
Answer: c

Q.23 Max size limit of parcel is
a. Length 1 mtr and length and girth is 1.80mtr
b. Length 2 mtr and length and girth is 1.900mtr
c. Length 3 mtr and length and girth is 1.20mtr
d. None of these
Answer: a

Q.24 No compensation will be payable in case
a. For loss or damage caused by the fault or negligence of the sender
b. Article is prohibited by transmission by post
c. For damage in case in which the contents of the registered article are liquid or perishable articles or articles of and exceptionally fragile nature.
d. All the above
Answer: d

Q.25 In which cases registration is compulsory
a. Any parcel exceed 4 kg
b. Any insured article
c. Any VP article
d. All the above
Answer: d

MCQ for IPO paper-1

Q.1 Night Post Office may extend up to and by
a. 0830 pm ,DG posts
b. 0700pm,HOC
c. 1000pm, PMG
d. 0600pm,SSP
Answer : a

Q.2Franking machine has
a. Value die
b. License die
c. Both a&b
d. None of this
Answer : c

Q.3 Franking article can be posted by
a. Any post office
b. Only two post office
c. Head office
d. All sub offices
Answer : b

Q.4  Franking machine license is issued by
a. Head of the cirlcle
b. Head of the division
c. DG posts
d. Any of these
Answer : b

Q.5 Window delivery ticket is a
a. Daily docket
b. The receipt given by PO
c. ID of Franking machine licensee’s representative
d. None of these
Answer: c

Q.6 Rebate available at the time of reset of meter is
a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 1.50%
Answer : b

Q.7 Error on franking impression the refund will be claimed by firm/institute within_____ and ___ of less deduction
a. two month, 2%
b. three month, 4%
c. one month, 5%
d. six month, 1%
Answer :c

Q.8 Franking meter reset will be made by
a. PA
b. Postman
c. LSG postmaster
d. PRI and above status
Answer:d

Q.9 Prepayment of postage on cash facility is authorized by and how much letter may be posted to have these facility.
a. HOC,UR-500 big city and 250 small city, Reg -50
b. DG post, UR-1000 big city and 500 small city, Reg -100
c. Head of the division UR-5000 big city and 1000 small city, Reg -500
d. None of these
Answer:a

Q.10 Recall of postal article fee for each article is
a. 9/-
b. 6/-
c. 3/-
d. Free of cost
Answer:b

Q.11 Window delivery will be made in case of insured article vale is more than
a. 500
b. 100
c. 200
d. 300
Answer:a

Q.12 Limit of detain article in post office which are received for delivery inland & foreign article
a. 15 days and 30 days
b. 7 and 15 days
c. 30 days and 45 days
d. None of these
Answer:b

Q.13 Fee for availing post box facility is
a. 150 per year and 50 per quarterly
b. 250 per year / 100 quarterly
c. 100 per year / 50 quarterly
d. None of these
Answer:a

Q.14 Fee for availing facility of box and post bag is combine is
a. 150 per year and 50 per quarterly
b. 250 per year / 80 quarterly
c. 100 per year / 50 quarterly
d. None of these
Answer:b

Q.15 Cost of window delivery ticket is
a. 9/-
b. 6/-
c. 3/-
d. Free of cost
Answer:d

Q.16 Cost of Identity card is
a. 9/-
b. 6/-
c. 3/-
d. Free of cost
Answer:a

Q.17 Validity period of ID card is
a. 1 Year
b. 2 Year
c. Six month
d. 3 year
Answer:d

Q.18 Poste Restante article can be detained in post office
a. 7 days
b. 1 month
c. 15 days
d. Can not be detain
Answer:b

Q.19 Redirection fee of parcels within delivery area /original address and sender in case of unclaimed parcel is
a. 9/-
b. 6/-
c. 3/-
d. Free of cost
Answer:d

Q.20 Redirection fee of parcels except delivery area /original address is
a. Postage plus registration fee
b. Full postage
c. Half the prepaid rate
d. Free of cost
Answer:d

Q.21 Suggestion & complaint book are maintained by
a. Head Post Office
b. Sub Post Office
c. Circle Office
d. All Post Offices
Answer:d

Q.22 Size limit of ID card is
a. 88mmX 63mm
b. 100mmX 70mm
c. 11mmX 22mm
d. None of these
Answer: a

Q.23 Instruction regarding change of residence is valid for
a. 1 month
b. 1 year
c. 3 years
d. 5 Years
Answer:c

Q.24 Authority to whom complaint should be addressed
a. Local Supdt.and PM in case first class PO
b. HOC
c. DG Posts
d. PMG
Answer:a

Q.25 Circle complaint officer is
a. Vigilance officer
b. CPMG
c. PMG
d. Head of division
Answer: a